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Kinh Nghiệm Hướng dẫn Kiểm tra 1 tiết lần 1 tiếng anh 11 thử nghiệm 2022
Update: 2022-04-13 02:17:07,You Cần kiến thức và kỹ năng về Kiểm tra 1 tiết lần 1 tiếng anh 11 thử nghiệm. Bạn trọn vẹn có thể lại phản hồi ở phía dưới để Tác giả được tương hỗ.
Tóm lược đại ý quan trọng trong bài
- Tổng quan dạng đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh lớp 11
- Kỹ năng học và ôn luyện Tiếng Anh
Để tương hỗ cho những bạn trong quy trình học và rèn luyện Tiếng Anh lớp 11. Chúng tôi có tổng hợp những Đề kiểm tra 1 tiết Tiếng anh lớp 11 lần 1 trong tài liệu phía dưới. Mời quý thầy cô và những bạn tìm hiểu thêm tài liệu phía dưới.
Tổng quan dạng đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Theo phương thức thay đổi cách học và thi. Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 thường được ra dưới dạng đề trắc nghiệm. Trong đề thi sẽ gồm có những dạng bài tập tương quan đến những chủ đề những bạn được học trong chương trình Tiếng Anh lớp 11. Đó là:
- Chủ đề 1: Friendship
- Chủ đề 2: Personal Experiences
- Chủ đề 3: A party
- Chủ đề 4: Volunteer
- Chủ đề 5: illiteracy
- Chủ đề 6: Competitions
- Chủ đề 7: World population
- Chủ đề 8: Celebration
- …
Đây là nửa chủ đề trong sách giáo khoa và cũng là chủ đề được học trong học kì 1. Các dạng bài tập tương quan đến những chủ đề trên sẽ đã có được trong đề kiểm tra 1 tiết Tiếng Anh lớp 11.
Trong đề kiểm tra sẽ đã có được cả dạng bài cơ bản đến nâng cao. Các bạn hãy ôn tập chăm chỉ đề đạt điểm tốt nhất trọn vẹn có thể.
Kỹ năng học và ôn luyện Tiếng Anh
Chương trình Tiếng Anh lớp 11 tương đối khó. Trong quy trình học Tiếng Anh lớp 11, từ vựng và ngữ pháp là hai kiến thức và kỹ năng quan trọng nhất mà những bạn phải căn chỉ học tập. Đây là kiến thức và kỹ năng cốt lõi giúp những bạn đạt điểm trên cao trong những kì thi. Đặc biệt là đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 và đề thi học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 11.
Có thể bạn quan tâm: Đề thi Tiếng anh lớp 11 học kì 2 có đáp án
Hãy chăm chỉ luyện những đề thi trong Đề kiểm tra 1 tiết Tiếng anh lớp 11 lần 1. Chúc những bạn học và thi tốt.
Tải tài liệu miễn phí ở đây
Sưu tầm: Thu Hoài
- Tải app VietJack. Xem lời giải nhanh hơn!
Bộ đề tổng hợp 100 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm học 2021 – 2022 Học kì 1 & Học kì 2 tinh lọc, có đáp án, cực sát đề chính thức gồm những đề thi giữa kì, đề thi học kì. Bộ đề thi được biên soạn bám sát hình thức định hình và nhận định kĩ năng học viên tiên tiến và phát triển nhất theo Thông tư 22 của Bộ Giáo dục đào tạo & Đào tạo. Hi vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ tương hỗ cho bạn ôn luyện & đạt điểm trên cao trong những bài thi Tiếng Anh 11.
Bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh 11 này được tổng hợp, tinh lọc từ đề thi của những trường THPT trên cả được và được đội ngũ Giáo viên biên soạn lời giải rõ ràng giúp học viên thuận tiện và đơn thuần và giản dị rèn luyện, định hình và nhận định kĩ năng của chính mình. Để xem rõ ràng, mời quí bạn đọc lựa chọn một trong những bộ đề thi tại đây:
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Phòng Giáo dục đào tạo và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh mới lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: phút
(Đề thi số 1)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (1) ___ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (2) ____with.
There are all sorts of things that can (3)____about this special relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages.____(4), it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend. To the ____(5)of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than anyone else. It’s the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.
Question 1: A. have B. share C. give D. spend
Question 2: A. up B. through C. on D. in
Question 3: A. provide B. bring C. cause D. result
Question 4: A. Therefore B. In addition C. However D. Yet
Question 5: A. majority B. major C. majorial D. majorially
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles tuy nhiên if you ask them.
Question 6: The passage is mainly about
A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups
B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years
C. The Beatles’ fame and success
D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles tuy nhiên
Question 7: The four boys of the Beatles
A. Came from the same family
B. Were at the same age
C. Came from a town in the north of England
D. Received good training in music
Question 8: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to
A. Notorious B. Bad
C. Shocking D. Popular
Question 9: The first songs of the Beatles were____
A. Written by themselves
B. Broadcast on the radio
C. Paid a lot of money
D. Written by black Americans
Question 10: What is not true about the Beatles?
A. The members had no training in music
B. They had a long stable career
C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans
Question 11: The Beatles stopped their live performances because
A. They had earned enough money
B. They did not want to work with each other
C. They spent more time writing their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.
Question 12: The tone of the passage is that of
A. Admiration B. Criticism
C. Neutral D. Sarcasm
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that has different pronunciation from the rest in each of the followings.
Question 13: A. waited B. mended C. objected D. faced
Question 14: A. bushes B. buses C. lorries D. charges
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 15: The better (A) you are at (B) English, the more chance (C) you have to get a job (D)
Question 16: He is (A) the (B) second person be killed (C) in that way (D)
Question 17: I’m very glad (A) that you’ve done (B) lots of (C) progress (D) this semester.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.
Question 18: ______ he is not rich, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although
C. Despite D.Because
Question 19: Donald Trump has suggested he could grant legal status to millions of undocumented immigrants who have not ______ serious crimes in what would be a major policy shift.
A. committed B. took
C. served D. done
Question 20: All students should be ______ and literate when they leave school.
A. numeric B. numeral
C. numerous D. numerate
Question 21: Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his ______ until it was announced publicly.
A. cap B. tongue
C. hat D. umbrella
Question 22: When a women works outside the home and makes money herself, she is ________ independent from her husband.
A. financially B. politically
C. philosophically D. variously
Question 23: A woman’s role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors ________ society or not.
A. upon B. to
C. off D. away
Question 24: The organization was ___________ in 1950 in the USA.
A. come around B. set up
C. made out D. put on
Question 25: Do you need to give your speech another_________ or do you already know it by heart?
A. break-down B. check-up
C. run-through D. mix-up
Question 26: Larry drove all night to get here for his sister’s wedding. He ___ exhausted by the time he arrived.
A. must have been B. could be
C. ought to be D. will have been
Question 27: He had spent ____ time writing an essay on his childhood.
A. a few B. a large number of
C. a great giảm giá of D. many
Question 28: When___________at this store, the buyers get a guarantee on all items
A. purchased B. purchase
C. purchasing D. having purchased
Question 29: ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the project.
A. If it were B. If it hadn’t been
C. were it to be D. Hadn’t it been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the followings.
Question 30: A. summary B. different C. physical D. decision
Question 31: A. attractiveness B. traditional C. generation D. American
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 32: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “………….!”
A. Better luck next time
B. It’s none of my business
C. Congratulations
D. That was nice of you.
Question 33: Tom: “Wasn’t it Mozart who composed Swan Lake?” Jane: “__________.”
A. Yes, he wasn’t
B. It’s out of question
C. I haven’t a clue
D. It’s not my favourite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 34: In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited
C. devoted D. interested
Question 35: If you do not understand the word “superstitious, look it up in the dictionary.
A. find its meaning B. write it
C. draw it D. note it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 36 “Where are you spending your holidays?” Janet asked us.
A. Janet asked us where we were spending our holidays.
B. Janet asked us where were we spending our holidays.
C. Janet asked us where you were spending your holidays.
D. Janet asked us where we were spending your holidays
Question 37: Be he rich or poor, she will marry him
A. She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor
B. She wants to marry him if he is rich
C. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor
D. She will marry him however poor he may be
Question 38: Many people think Steve stole the money.
A. The money is thought to be stolen by Steve.
B. Steve is thought to have stolen the money.
C. Many people think the money is stolen by Steve.
D. It was not Steve who stole the money.
Question 39: The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals.
A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals.
B. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals.
C. The show performing by the animals attracted the children.
D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals.
Question 40: “We preserve natural resources. We can use them in the future.” means_____.
A. We preserve natural resources so that we can use them in the future
B. We preserve natural resources so as to we can use them in the future
C. We preserve natural resources in order to we can use them in the future
D. We preserve natural resources for fear that we can use them in the future
Đáp án
1B 2A 3B 4C 5A 6C 7C 8C 9D 10B
11D 12A 13D 14C 15C 16C 17B 18B 19D 20D
21C 22A 23B 24B 25C 26A 27C 28C 29B 30D
31C 32A 33C 34C 35A 36A 37C 38B 39D 40A
Phòng Giáo dục đào tạo và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Học kì 1
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh mới lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: phút
(Đề thi số 1)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warm, and instruct people. While verbalization is most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
Question 1: Which form other than oral speech would be the most commonly used among blind people?
A. Picture signs B. Braille
C. Signal flags D. Body language
Question 2: The word “these” I the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. thoughts and feelings
B. tourists
C. the deaf and the mute
D. sign language motions
Question 3: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for _______.
A. spelling B. ideas
C. whole words D. expressions
Question 4: The word “wink” in the second paragraph means most nearly the same as______.
A. close one eye briefly
B. close two eyes briefly
C. shake the head from side to side
D. bob the head up and down
Question 5: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?
A. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners
B. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest
C. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
D. Everybody uses only one form of communication
Question 6: What is the best title for the passage?
A. The importance of Sign Language.
B. Ways of Expressing Feelings.
C. The Forms of Communication.
D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication.
Question 7: People need to communicate in order to _______.
A. keep from reading with their fingertips
B. be picturesque and exact
C. create language barriers
D. express thoughts and feelings
Question 8: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ________.
A. Ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body toàn thân language.
B. There are many forms of communication in existence today
C. The deaf and mute can use an oral form of communication
D. Verbalization is the most common form of communication
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 9: A. concerned B. raised C. developed D. maintained
Question 10: A. hurry B. under C. pressure D. rush
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 11: She raised her hand high. She wanted to attract her teacher’s attension.
A. Because her teacher attracted her, she raised her hand high.
B. To attart her teacher’s attension, she raised her hand high.
C. Though she raised her hand high, she could not attract her teacher’s attension.
D. She had such a high raising of hand that she failed to attract her teacher’s attension.
Question 12: My brother isn’t good at English. I’m not either.
A. Neither my brother nor I am not good at English.
B. Neither my brother nor I am good at English.
C. Not only my brother but I am good at English as well.
D. Both my brother and I are good at English.
Pick out the word that has the primary stress different from that of the other words.
Question 13: A. Restaurent B. Assistance C. Usually D. Compliment
Question 14: A. Suppose B. Problem C. Minute D. Dinner
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: When you see your teacher approaching you, a slight wave to attract his attension is appropiate.
A. Coming nearer to B. Leaving
C. Pointing at D. Looking up to
Question 16: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.
A. Criticize yourself B. Wear a backpack
C. Praise yourself D. Check up your back
Pick out the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs corrrections in each of the following questions.
Question 17: The (A) effects of ciagarette (B) moking has (C) been proven to be extremely (D) harmful (D).
Question 18: Only (A) after food has been dried (B) or canned it should (C) be stored for future use (D).
Question 19: Hoa’s (A) parents didn’t (B) allow her going (C) to the cinema with (D) her friends yesterday.
Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
Question 20: I haven’t met my grandparents for five years.
A. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I have met my grandparents for five years.
C. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
D. I didn’t meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 21: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I failed to ger the job because of my poor English
B. Depite my poor English, I was successfull in the job
C. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well
D. I would have spoken English well if I could get the job
Question 22: “Yes, I solen your purse” The boy said to the young woman.
A. The boy denied stealing the young man’s purse.
B. The young woman thanked the boy for stealing her purse.
C. The boy admitted stealing the woman’s purse.
D. The young woman accused the boy of stealing her purse.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in the meaning to the undelined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surrondings. That is why we do not want to leave.
A. Loved the surroundings
C. Planted many trees in the surroundings
B. Possessed by the surroundings
D. Hauted by the surrroundings
Question 24: I didn’t think his the comments were very appropriate at the time.
A. Correct B. Right
C. Exact D. Suitable
Read the passage mark letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
The Gerneral Cerificate of Secondary Education or the GCSE excaminations for short are the standard school-leaver qualifications taken by virually all UK students in the May and June following their 16th birthday. If you come to a UK (25)_______ school before you (26)_______ the age of 16, you will study towards GCSE excaminationin up to 12 subjects. Some subjects are compulory, including English and matchematics, and you can select (27)_____, such as music, drama, geography and history from a series of options. GCSEs provide a good all-round education (28)_______ you can build (29)______ at colleage and eventually at university.
Question 25: A. dependence B. independence C. independent D. independently
Question 26: A. reach B. come C. approach D. Go
Question 27: A. other B. each other C. another D. Others
Question 28: A. what B. that C. where D. Whose
Question 29: A. on B. at C. in D. for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answser sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 30: – Mai: You look great in this new dress, An! – An: _______.
A. With pleasure.
C. I am glad you like it.
B. Not at all.
D. Do not say anything about it.
Question 31: Ken and Tom are high – school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
– Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?” – Tom: “_________”.
A. Studying in a group is great fun.
C. We are too busy on weekdays.
B. Why don’t you look at the atlas?
D. The library would be best.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.
These days, most people in Britain and the US do not wear very formal clothes. But sometimes it is important to wear the right thing.
Many British people don’t think about clothes very much. They just like to be comfortable. When they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At theatres, cinemas and concerts you can put on what you like from elegant suits and dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes, as long as you look clean and tidy.
But in Britain, as well as in the US, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and women wear dresses or skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear quite formal clothes. And in some hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and women wear smart dresses.
In many years, Americans are more relaxed than British people , but they are more careful with their clothes. At home, or on holiday, most Americans wear informal or sporty clothes. But when they go out in the evening, they like to look elegant. In good hotels and restaurants, men have to wear jackets and ties, and women wear pretty clothes and smart hairstyles.
It is difficult to say exactly what people wear informal or formal in Britain and the US, because everyone is different. If you are not sure what to wear, watch what other people do and then do the same. You’ll feel more relaxed if you don’t look too different from everyone else.
Question 32: Many British people wear freely when they__________.
A. attend lectures
B. attend meetings
C. spend their spare time
D. work in offices
Question 33: Who doesn’t usually wear suits and ties?
A. lawyers B. doctors
C. drivers D. businessmen
Question 34: If you visit an American friend at home in the evening, you may find that your friend wears _________.
A. pretty clothes
B. formal clothes
C. dirty clothes
D. informal clothes
Question 35: If you are in a foreign country, the best way the writer suggests to you is to wear
A. strange clothes
C. your native clothes
B. as the people there do
D. comfortable clothes
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ________.
A. American peple B. british people
C. men D. women
Question 37: The word “elegant” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. Decent B. confident
C. comfortable D. neat
Question 38: What do you think the passage is mainly about ?
A. Recent dressing habits in Great Britain and the United States.
B. The reason why informal clothing is popular in the UK and USA.
C. When we should wear in a formal way.
D. Where we should wear in a formal way.
Choose the most suitable words or phrases to fill in the blanks.
Question 39: The man _________ designed the building is my mother.
A. Who B. whose
C. when D. what
Question 40: I ________ for this company for more than 30 years, and I intend to say here until I retire next year.
A. Am working B. am going to work
C. work D. have been working
Question 41: I fell in ______ love with him because of his kind nature.
A. A B. an
C. the D. 0
Question 42: She accepted that she had acted _______ and mistakeenly, which broke up her marriage.
A. Romantically B. unwisely
C. wisely D. attractively
Question 43: All of us ______ obey the traffic laws.
A. Must B. can
C. may D. need
Question 44: I recognized my grandma as soon as she ____ the plane through we had not seen each other for more than 10 years.
A. Got up B. got off
C. got in D. got over
Question 45: People believed that what they do on the first day of year will _____ their luck during the whole year.
A. Contrl B. influence
C. exchange D. result
Question 46: On my birthday, my father gave me a ________.
A. New blue German car
C. new German blue car
B. Blue German new car
D. German new blue car
Question 47: The boy waved his hands to his mother, who was standing at the school gate to ______ her attention.
A. Attract B. pull
C. follow D. tempt
Question 48: In some cases, Mary is thought not to be ________ her sister
A. As much intelligent than
C. intelligent more than
B. So intelligent than
D. as intelligent as
Question 49: Most of us would maintain that physical _______ does not play a major part in how we react to the people we meet.
A. Attract B. attractive
C. attractiveness D. attractively
Question 50: The mother asked her son _____ the day before.
A. Where he has been C. where has he been
B. Where he had been D. where had he been
Đáp án
1B 2D 3A 4A 5C 6C 7D 8C 9C 10C
11B 12B 13B 14A 15B 16A 17C 18C 19C 20A
21A 22C 23A 24D 25C 26A 27D 28B 29A 30C
31D 32C 33C 34B 35B 36A 37A 38A 39A 40D
41D 42B 43B 44B 45B 46A 47A 48D 49C 50B
Phòng Giáo dục đào tạo và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh mới lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: phút
(Đề thi số 1)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. organiser B. comfortable C. technology D. populated
Question 2: A. presentation B. pessimistic C. residential D. innovative
Question 3: A. renewable B. sustainable C. insfrastructure D. environment
Question 4: A. familiar B. generate C. assignment D. pollutant
Question 5: A. overcrowded B. inhabitant C. geography D. convenient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Today Islamabad is a thriving city of about 1 million people. It offers a healthy climate, a pollution-không lấy phí atmosphere, plenty of water, and many green spaces.
A. healthy B. prosperous
C. modern D. green
Question 7: Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS.
A. new cure B. important therapy
C. sudden remedy D. dramatic development
Question 8: They design and carry out projects aiming to reduce fossil fuel consumption, find renewable fuels for public transport, and promote other clean air efforts.
A. inexhaustible
B. recyclable
C. green
D. environmentally-friendly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: If I take the pessimistic viewpoint, Tokyo won’t be a safe place to live in.
A. negative B. optimistic
C. optical D. neutral
Question 10: To reduce carbon emissions into the atmosphere, ways to limit the use of private cars must be found.
A. public B. personal
C. common D. shared
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 11: “What if I quit more than 3 sessions?” – “____”
A. You won’t take the final exam.
B. You wouldn’t take the final exam.
C. You wouldn’t be able to take the final exam.
D. You can’t take the final exam.
Question 12: “____” – “Yes, I love it here. Everything I want is only five minutes away.”
A. It’s convenient to live here, isn’t it?
B. It’s comfortable to live here, isn’t it?
C. It’s inconvenient to live here, isn’t it?
D. It’s uncomfortable to live here, isn’t it?
Question 13: “City dwellers are always so busy, aren’t they?” – “____”
A. No, they aren’t. Everybody’s rushing about all the time.
B. Not really. Everybody’s rushing about all the time.
C. I’m not sure. Everybody’s rushing about all the time.
D. Yes, everybody’s rushing about all the time.
Question 14: “____” – “London’s so big. It took me ages to find my way round.”
A. What about London?
B. What was London?
C. How was London?
D. How about London?
Question 15: “Most cities aren’t safe places to live, are they?” – “____”
A. No, I’m afraid. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.
B. Yes, they are. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.
C. Well, the opposite is true. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.
D. On the contrary. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
MARRAKECH
Where can you go in January for almost guaranteed sunshine – without travelling for most of the day to get there? The answer is Marrakech in Morocco, a four-hour (106) ____ from Britain, where the average temperature is a pleasant 66°F.
Marrakech is a city of (107) ____ beauty, with its pink buildings and green palm trees contrasting with the snow-covered (108) ____ of the Atlas Mountains in the distance. For tourists, there’s the added attraction of excellent food at reasonable prices, and high quality accommodation, such as Hotel La Momounia, (109) ____ as one of the top hotels in the world.
(110) ____ Marrakech is one of Morocco’s busiest and most modern cities, the influence of the Middle Ages is still very evident. (111) ____ can admire the battlements, towers, and mosques, which were built (112) ____ centuries ago. And forget about shopping malls – for perfumes, fabrics, antiques, spices and crafts, (113) ____ the ‘souks’, open-air market places where you’ll almost (114) ____ find something to take back home.
For those who want to (115) ____ sport Marrakech has plenty to offer. In addition to golf and tennis, there is also skiing on the slopes of the high Atlas Mountains, where the views of the surrounding area are quite spectacular. Alternatively, you could just relax by a heated swimming pool and dream of your next visit.
Question 16: A. travel B. trip C. flight D. voyage
Question 17: A. big B. great C. large D. high
Question 18: A. peaks B. hills C. heads D. surfaces
Question 19: A. thought B. regarded C. believed D. guessed
Question 20: A. Because B. However C. Despite D. Although
Question 21: A. Spectators B. Viewers C. Sightseers D. Onlookers
Question 22: A. several B. plenty C. other D. all
Question 23: A. work out B. put up with C. head for D. make up for
Question 24: A. likely B. certainly C. probably D. possibly
Question 25: A. do B. exercise C. take off D. go in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
LESSONS FROM CURITIBA
Urban planning đơn hàng with the physical, economic, and social development of cities. Today urban populations are increasing rapidly, and growing cities are putting enormous pressure on the environment. For this reason, the type of urban planning found in Curitiba, in southern Brazil, is more important than ever.
Curitiba is a fine example of how urban planning can work. This has not always been the case, however. At one time, Curitiba faced the same problems as many other cities all over the world, namely overcrowding, pollution, and an increased demand for services, transport, and housing. How, then, did Curitiba address these problems?
By the 1940s the population of Curitiba had grown to about 150,000 as immigrants from countries such as nhật bản, Syria, and Lebanon came to work in agriculture and industry. These people needed both housing and transportation. Curitiba’s leaders realised that it was not sensible to giảm giá with these problems separately. Consequently, they employed a French planner and architect, Alfred Agache, to find an overall solution.
Agache studied all aspects of the problem. He designed a scheme which gave priority to public services such as sanitation and public transport. At the same time, the scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop, and reduced traffic congestion. This was the first scheme to address several problems of growing cities at the same time. Unfortunately, some parts of his plan were not completed. The result, as described below, was that his scheme only served Curitiba for another 20 years.
By the 1960s, the population of Curitiba had grown to about 430,000 inhabitants, so the city had to rethink its needs. In order to do this, the mayor put together a team of architects and town planners led by Jaime Lerner. This team produced the Curitiba Master Plan. This consisted of taking Agache’s original plan and adding wide, high-speed roads which crossed the smaller streets. Their proposals also included plans to minimise urban growth, reduce city centre traffic, and preserve the city’s historic district. It is clear that the Curitiba Master Plan was one of the first attempts to integrate all aspects of city planning.
This integrated approach to urban design was maintained throughout the 1980s as Curitiba’s population grew to almost one million inhabitants. Environmental facilities were added, such as a recycling programme for household waste, and parks and ‘green’ spaces were protected from development. However, good transportation remained central to the planning.
Good transportation still remains a priority, together with the needs for jobs. A growing population needs employment, so business parks and centres have been added to encourage new small businesses. All these changes will continue be the population of Curitiba increases, but its city planners are continually searching for solutions to the problems.
Question 26: What aspect of development does urban planning NOT giảm giá with?
A. physical development
B. technical development
C. economic development.
D. social development
Question 27: How many problems are mentioned in the passage as commonly shared by many cities?
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
Question 28: What was the main cause of the increase in Curitiba’s population Delore the 1940s?
A. immigrants from rural areas
B. workers in business park
C. immigrants from neighbouring countries
D. immigrants from nhật bản, Syria, and Lebanon
Question 29: In what ways was Agache’s approach different?
A. His scheme gave priority to public services.
B. His scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop.
C. His scheme reduced traffic congestion.
D. His scheme addressed several problems at the same time.
Question 30: What did the Curitiba Master Plan do?
A. added better road system
B. reduced urban growth
C. prohibit city-centre traffic
D. all of the above
Đáp án
1C 2D 3C 4B 5A 6B 7D 8A 9B 10A
11D 12A 13D 14C 15A 16C 17B 18A 19A 20D
21C 22A 23C 24C 25B 26B 27D 28D 29D 30D
Phòng Giáo dục đào tạo và Đào tạo …..
Đề thi Học kì 2
Năm học 2021 – 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh mới lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: phút
(Đề thi số 1)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. dint B. dinosaur C. dioxide D. diode
Question 2: A. pension B. vision C. pleasure D. measure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. deserve B. bamboo C. channel D. forget
Question 4: A. departure B. furniture C. endanger D. determine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: They are the shocking news in newspapers that is what people are talking about this morning.
A. about B. is
C. They are D. are
Question 6: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-topped mountains more than a mile beneath sea level.
A. is B. more than
C. On D. hundreds of
Question 7: Unlike many writings of her time, she was not preoccupied with morality.
A. preoccupied B. writings
C. morality D. of her time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: That style of dress ______ have been designed by Titian, because it wasn’t worn till after his death.
A. must B. might
C. can’t D. shouldn’t
Question 9: Poor management brought the company to ___ of collapse.
A. the foot B. the ring
C. the brink D. the edge
Question 10: Mary as well as her friends ______ her hometown recently.
A. have returned B. has returned
C. returns D. returned
Question 11: She ______ me a very charming compliment on my painting.
A. made B. showed
C. took D. paid
Question 12: It is advisable that the room ______ before Christmas.
A. should decorate B. were decorated
C. is decorated D. be decorated
Question 13: Most of us would maintain that physical ______ does not play a major part in how we react to the people we meet.
A. attractiveness B. attract
C. attractive D. attraction
Question 14: Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their ______ parents. So they leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-growing industrial zones.
A. wide-ranging B. weather-beaten
C. long-term D. up-to-date
Question 15: ______ as the most important crop in Hawaii is sugar cane.
A. What ranks B. The rank
C. It ranks D. It is ranked
Question 16: He lives in a small town ______ is called Taunton.
A. whom B. where
C. who D. which
Question 17: After months of testing, the Russian space scientists ______ a space suit that works better than any other in history .
A. came to B. came up with
C. came out with D. came up to
Question 18: If I______that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now.
A. would know B. have known
C. had known D. knew
Question 19: He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, ______?
A. didn’t he B. hadn’t he
C. would he D. had he
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Mary and Linda are off work. They want to play some games to refresh.
-Mary: – “It’s a nice day today. Let’s play a trò chơi of tennis.” – Linda: – “______.”
A. why not?
B. Shall not we play?
C. Will we not play?
D. Why do we play?
Question 21:
Lan: “I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof.”
Mai: “______. Family members can help each other a lot.”
A. I don’t agree B. It’s not true
C. That’s wrong D. I couldn’t agree more
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.
A. surrendered B. confided himself
C. accommodated himself D. went up
Question 23: In the twentieth century, drug markedly improved health throughout the world.
A. consistently B. supposedly
C. noticeably D. recently
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. relaxed about B. interested in
C. không lấy phí from D. busy with
Question 25: Because John defaulted on his loan, the ngân hàng nhà nước took him to court.
A. was paid much money B. failed to pay
C. paid in full D. had a bad personality
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Alfred said to John. “I didn’t use your computer! Someone else did, not me.”
A. Alfred denied having used John’s computer, saying that someone else had.
B. Alfred said to John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.
C. Alfred told John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.
D. Alfred refused to use John’s computer, saying that someone else had.
Question 27: This is the first time we have been to the circus.
A. We have been to the circus some times before.
B. We had been to the circus once before.
C. We have ever been to the circus often before.
D. We have never been to the circus before.
Question 28: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
A. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
B. The position wasn’t given to him in spite of his ability to do the job.
C. He got the position despite being unable to do the job.
D. He was given neither the job nor the position.
Question 29: The girl forgot to set the alarm clock. Therefore, she is in a hurry now.
A. The girl forgot to set the alarm clock because she is in a hurry now.
B. The girl is not in a hurry now in spite of forgetting to set the alarm clock.
C. The girl is not in a hurry now although she forgot to set the alarm clock.
D. The girl is in a hurry now because she forgot to set the alarm clock.
Question 30: When I picked up my book, I found that the cover had been torn.
A. The cover had been torn when my book picked up.
B. On picking up the book, I saw that the cover had been torn.
C. Pick up my book, the cover had been torn.
D. Picked up, I saw that the cover of the book was torn.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (31)______ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (32)______ with.
There are all sorts of things that can (33)______ about this special relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages. (34)______, it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend.
To the (35) ______of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than anyone else. It’s the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.
Question 31: A. give B. have C. share D. spend
Question 32: A. up B. in C. through D. on
Question 33: A. bring B. cause C. provide D. result
Question 34: A. However B. Yet C. In addition D. Therefore
Question 35: A. Majorially B. majority C. majorial D. major
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Whales are the largest animals in the world, and the gentlest creatures we know. Although the whale is very huge, it is not hindered at all by its size when it is in the water. Whales have tails that end like flippers. With just a gentle flick, it can propel itself forward. The skin of a whale is so smooth that it does not create any friction that can slow the whale down. A whale’s breathing hole is located on the top of its head, so it can breathe without having to completely push its head out of the water. Whales are protected from the cold seawater by body toàn thân fat that is called blubber.
Whales live in the ocean but, in terms of behaviours, they are more similar to humans than fish.
They live in family groups and they even travel in groups when they have to migrate from cooler to warmer waters. The young stay with their parents for as long as fifteen years. Whales are known not to desert the ill or injured members; instead, they cradle them.
When whales are in danger, there are people who go to great lengths to help them. One such case occurred in 1988, when three young whales were trapped in the sea. It was close to winter and the sea had begun to freeze over. Whales are mammals that require oxygen from the air, so the frozen ice was a great danger to them. All they had then was a tiny hole in the ice for them to breathe through. Volunteers from all over soon turned up to help these creatures. They cut holes in the ice to provide more breathing holes for the whales. These holes would also serve as guides for the whales so that they could swim to warmer waters.
Question 36: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Some remarkable similarities of whales to humans.
B. Whales as the only animals to live in warm water.
C. Whales as the largest, gentlest but vulnerable creatures.
D. Successful attempts to rescue whales all over the world.
Question 37: Whales can move easily in water thanks to their______.
A. size and head B. tail and skin
C. skin and head D. tail and blubber
Question 38: Where is the whale’s breathing hole located?
A. On its tail B. On its face
C. On its head D. On its back
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following to show that whales “are more similar to humans” EXCEPT ______.
A. they do not desert the ill or injured members.
B. the young stay with their parents for almost fifteen years.
C. they live in family groups and travel in groups.
D. they do not migrate from cooler to warmer waters.
Question 40: The word “tiny” in paragraph 3 probably means______.
A. very fat B. very deep
C. very small D. very ugly
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to______.
A. warmer waters B. the whales
C. guides D. holes
Question 42: According to the passage, why was the frozen ice on the sea surface a danger to whales?
A. Because the water was too cold for them as they were warm-blooded.
B. Because they couldn’t eat when the weather was too cold.
C. Because whales couldn’t breathe without sufficient oxygen.
D. Because they couldn’t swim in icy cold water.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of modern sculpture in the United States. Direct carving ― in which the sculptors themselves carve stone or wood with mallet and chisel ― must be recognized as something more than just a technique. Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as well: that the medium has certain qualities of beauty and expressiveness with which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony. For example, sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests, perhaps even dictates, not only the ultimate form, but even the subject matter.
The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenth-century tradition in which the making of a clay model was considered the creative act and the work was then turned over to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or bronze or carved in marble. Neoclassical sculptors seldom held a mallet or chisel in their own hands, readily conceding that the assistants they employed were far better than they were at carving
With the turn-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of nontraditional sources of inspiration, such as wooden African figures and masks, there arose a new urge for hands-on, personal execution of art and an interaction with the medium. Even as early as the 1880’s and 1890’s, nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving. By the second decade of the twentieth century, Americans – Laurent and Zorach most notably – had adopted it as their primary means of working.
Born in France, Robert Laurent(1890-1970)was a prodigy who received his education in the United States. In 1905 he was sent to Paris as an apprentice to an art dealer, and in the years that followed he witnessed the birth of Cubism, discovered primitive art, and learned the techniques of woodcarving from a frame maker.
Back in Thành Phố New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The Priestess, which reveals his fascination with African, pre-Columbian, and South Pacific art. Taking a walnut plank, the sculptor carved the expressive, stylized design.
It is one of the earliest examples of direct carving in American sculpture. The plank’s form dictated the rigidly frontal view and the low relief. Even its irregular shape must have appealed to Laurent as a break with a long-standing tradition that required a sculptor to work within a perfect rectangle or square.
Question 43: The word “medium”in paragraph 1 could be used to refer to .
A. principle B. mallet and chisel
C. technique D. stone or wood
Question 44: What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving?
A. A sculptor must work with talented assistants.
B. The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories.
C. The material is an important element in a sculpture.
D. Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it.
Question 45: The word “dictates” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. includes B. determines
C. reads aloud D. records
Question 46: How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture?
A. Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece.
B. Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources.
C. Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools.
D. Sculptors receive more formal training.
Question 47: The word “witnessed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. studied B. influenced
C. validated D. observed
Question 48: Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve?
A. The South Pacific B. Paris
C. Africa D. Thành Phố New York
Question 49: The phrase “a break with ” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to______.
A. a solution to B. a collapse of
C. a destruction of D. a departure from
Question 50: The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT______.
A. It depicts the front of a person.
B. The carving is not deep.
C. The design is stylized.
D. It is made of marble.
Đáp án
1A 2A 3C 4B 5D 6A 7B 8C 9C 10A
11D 12D 13D 14B 15D 16D 17B 18C 19D 20A
21D 22A 23C 24C 25C 26A 27D 28B 29D 30B
31C 32A 33A 34A 35B 36C 37B 38C 39D 40C
41B 42C 43D 44C 45B 46D 47D 48B 49D 50D
………………………………
………………………………
………………………………
Trên đấy là phần tóm tắt một số trong những đề thi trong những bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh mới lớp 11 năm học 2021 – 2022 Học kì 1 và Học kì 2, để xem khá đầy đủ mời quí bạn đọc lựa chọn một trong những bộ đề thi ở trên!
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